BHU PAPER JUNE02

BHU June 2002
1. Stove in hip is seen in fracture of
a) Neck of femur
b) Acetabulum
c) Pubic symphysis
d) Femur

2. Normal anion gap is seen in
a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
b) Salicylate poisoning
c) Renal tubular acidosis
d) Starvation acidosis

3. Fall on the outstretched hand can cause all
of the following except
a) Fracture of femur
b) Colles fracture
c) Elbow dislocation
d) Fracture of styloid process

4. Colles fracture is fracture involving
a) Lower radius
b) Upper ulna
c) Knee
d) Olecranon process

5. Waters view is to visualize for
a) Maxillary sinus
b) Elbow
c) Knee
d) Pelvis

6. True about portal vein is
a) It lies in front of the neck of pancreas
b) Forms by joining of superior
mesenteric vein and splenic vein
c) Lies behind the inferior vena cava
d) Anterior to the gall bladder
7. The causative organism implicated in the
causation of carcinoma of the cervix,
vagina and the penis is
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Herpes simplex
c) .
d) .
8. Amacrine cells are seen in
a) Retina
b) Skin in the axilla
c) Inner ear
d) Blood
9. In a patient with head injury with
progressive cerebral compression is best
indicated by
a) Falling level of consciousness
b) Tachycardia
c) Vomiting
d) Abnormal pupils
10. Retro-orbital neuritis is diagnosed by
a) Pain on moving of eye ball
b) Swinging flash light test
c) Disc edema
d) Decreased dark adaptation
11. All of the following are causes of seizures
in the neonate except
a) Meningitis
b) Septicemia
c) Pertusis vaccine
d) Hypoxia
12. Diploid cell lines are
a) He La cells
b) McCoy
c) W138
d) All of the above
13. Nerve supply of constrictor pupillae is
through
a) Short ciliary nerve
b) Long ciliary nerve
c) Nasociliary nerve
d) Lacrimal nerve
14. The glossopharyngeal nerve winds around
which important structure
a) Posterior belly of digastric
b) Hyoglossus
c) Genioglossus
d) Stylophayngeus
15. The mandibular nerve supplies
a) Tensor levator veli
b) Tensor veli palitini
c) Levator palpebrae superioris
d) Buccinator
16. In a body of a man with wounds over the
both ears with cuts over the nose and a 6”
wide ½ “ depth ¼ “ broad cut extending
between the nipples suggests that death
has been most probably due to
a) Suicide
b) Homicide
c) Accident
d) Any of the above
17. True regarding seminoma is
a) Cut section is homogenous in
appearance
b) It is radiosensitive
c) Can be spread hematogenous route
d) Tumor marker is alphafetoprotien
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18. Stilbesterol administered during
pregnancy can produce which of the
following effects in the offspring
a) Virilization of head and neck
b) Vaginal sdenocarcinoma in teenage
c) Virilization of lower limbs
d) None of the above
19. Ru 486 can be used in all of the following
conditions except
a) Endometriosis
b) Emergency contraception
c) To cause abortion
d) Endometrial carcinoma
20. True about constrictive Pericarditis is all
of the following except
a) Severe orthopnea
b) Kussmouls sign
c) Pulsus paradoxus
d) Splenomegaly
21. Estrogen hyperstimulation syndrome is
associated with all of the following except
a) Ascitis
b) Ovarian enlargement
c) Electrolyte imbalance
d) Seizures
22. All of the following are characteristic
features seen in kwashiorkor except
a) Apathy
b) Weight loss
c) Flag sign
d) Flaky dermatosis of skin
23. The most important stimulus for release of
secretin is
a) Amino acids
b) Vitamin D
c) Wheat
d) HCl
24. The EEG complexes seen during light
sleep are
a) 7-10 Hz
b) 10-14 Hz
c) 14-18 Hz
d) 18-22 Hz
25. True regarding EEG is
a) Shows mental abnormality
b) Is bilaterally symmetrical
c) Shows low frequency during deep
sleep
d)
26. The ECG changes seen in hyperkalemia
are all of the following except
a) Progressive widening of QRS
b) Tall T waves
c) Peaked P waves
d) Flat P waves
27. The drugs causing prolonged QRS with
increased QT and occasionally causing
prolonged PR include all of the following
except
a) Quinidine
b) Procainamide
c) Propranolol
d) Amiodarone
28. The hiatus semilunaris is seen in
a) Sphenoethmoidal recess
b) Middle miatus
c) Superior meatus
d) Inferior meatus
29. Frills excision is done for which of the
following
a) Endophthalmitis
b) Panopthalmitis
c) Malignant melanoma
d) Retinoblastoma
30. Which of the following ocular
complications are seen in diabetes mellitus
a) Proliferative retinopathy
b) Glaucoma
c) Cataract
d) All of the above
31. Oral hypoglyceamics are preferred in the
treatment
a) Maturity onset diabetes
b) Juvenile diabetes
c) Diabetics with obesity
d) None of the above
32. Most common cause of papillary necrosis
is
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hemolytic ureamic syndrome
c) Analgesic nephropathy
d) Hypertension
33. Bone in bone appearance is seen typically
in
a) Osteopetrosis
b) Sickle cell aneamia
c) Bone infarction
d) Leukemia
34. Pseudoflexion deformity is seen in
a) Tuberculosis of hip joint
b) Septic arthritis of hip joint
c) Iliopsoas abcess
d) Pott’s spine
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35. Least diameter in the pelvis is
a) Obstetric conjugate
b) True conjugate
c) Diagonal conjugate
d) Tranverse diameter
36. Flexion, adduction and internal rotation is
seen in
a) Posterior dislocation of hip
b) Fracture neck of femur
c) Intertrochanteric fracture
d) None of the above
37. The capillary pressure in the capillaries in
the glomerulus is
a) Less then the efferent arteriole
pressure
b) Decreased by constriction of the
afferent artriole
c) Generally more then the pressure in
most capillaries of the body
d) Less then the pressure in the
bowmans capsule
38. Predictors of preclampsia are
a) Plasma magnesium level
b) Roll over test
c) Urinary kallikrein excretion
d) Angiotension stimulation test
39. Endoscopy can detect lesions in all of the
following except
a) Esophagus
b) Urinary bladder
c) Kidneys
d) Stomach
40. The length of the external auditory canal
is
a) 38 mm
b) 24 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 15 mm
41. Gradenigo’s syndrome includes all of the
following except
a) Retro-orbital pain
b) Deafness
c) Fascial palsy
d) Diplopia
42. All of the following structures develop
from paramesonephric duct except
a) Appendix of testes
b) Lower half of vagina
c) Fallopian tubes
d) Uterus
43. Which of the following is a condylar joint
a) Ankle joint
b) Hip joint
c) Knee joint
d) Tibio-fibular joint
44. Painless effusion in the joints in syphilis is
a) Charcots joint
b) Cluttons joint
c) Tabes paralysis
d) Occurs in secondary syphilis
45. Not true in gout is
a) 1st metatarsophalyngeal joint is
involved
b) Swelling of joint occurs
c) Does not lead to pain and crippling
d) Diagnosed by negative birefregence
crystals
46. True about VDRL is
a) Slide flocculation test
b) Used for serological testing of
syphilis
c) Is non specific test
d) All of the above
47. Gout is worsened by all of the following
except
a) Azithromycin
b) Sulphinpyrazone
c) Thiazides
d) Leukemia’s
48. Hypokalemia is associated with all of the
following except
a) Rhabdomyolisis
b) Tall T waves
c) Furesemide
d) Paralytic ileus
49. In death due to drowning, the cause is
suggested by all of the following except
a) Clasping of grass in the hands
b) Negative diatom test
c) Presence of swallowed water in the
stomach
d) None of the above
50. CT scan was invented by
a) J. Simpson
b) Hounsefeld
c) Farraday
d) John Burnett
51. The first surgeon to receive the nobel
prize is
a) Joseph lister
b) William Halsted
c) Theodore Kocher
d) Billroth
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52. The drug of choice in the treatment of
PSVT is
a) Procainamide
b) Adenosine
c) Amiodarone
d) Propranolol
53. Tick borne diseases include all of the
following except
a) Tulereamia
b) Q fever
c) Rocky mountain spotted fever
d) Relapsing fever
54. Anti smith antibodies include
a) Polymyositis
b) Systemic sclerosis
c) SLE
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
55. In post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
the type of hypersensitivity includes
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
56. The antibodies with identical antigen
combining sites include identical
a) Isotype
b) Idiotype
c) Epitopes
d) Allotype
57. Polymiositis involves all of the following
muscles except
a) Shoulder girdle
b) Vastus medialis
c) Ocular muscles
d) Brachialis
58. Micronized progesterone can be given by
which of the following routes
a) Oral only
b) Vaginal route only
c) IV
d) Oral and vaginal routes
59. Least common cause associated with PID
is
a) Menstruating teenagers
b) OCP users
c) Condom users
d) IUCD
60. Snow storm appearance in ultrasound is
a) Mullerian agenesis
b) Hydatiform mole
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Abruptio placenta
61. True about HSV II is it causes
a) It causes labial ulcers
b) More common in homosexuals
c) Carcinoma cervix
d) All of the above
62. Congenital transmission is seen in all of
the following except
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Herpes
d) Cryptococcus
63. In Pneumocystis carinii infection, the
diagnosis is made by
a) Serology
b) Microscopic examination to see for
trophzoites or occasional cysts
c) Isolation in artificial media
d) Culture in cell media
64. In cystic fibrosis all of the following are
infections are more common except
a) Pseudomonas
b) Aspergillus fumigatus
c) Staphylococcal aureus
d) Tuberculosis
65. Most common complication following
emergency appendicitis
a) Cutaneous fistula
b) Wound infection
c) Sepsis
d) Adhesive intestinal obstruction
66. Which of the following is a non reducing
sugar
a) Maltose
b) Galactose
c) Fructose
d) Sucrose
67. The diastolic pressure in left ventricle is
a) O
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80
68. Most common cause of death in
pregnancy related to heart disease is
a) Pulmonary oedema
b) Cardiac failure
c) MI
d) Atrial flutter
69. In dynamic intestinal obstruction the gas
found in highest quantity in the intestine
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
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c) Carbon dioxide
d) Carbon monoxide
70. Twice increase in level of free (unbound)
drug is due to renal disease is seen in all of
the following except
a) Phenytoin
b) Clofibrate
c) Diazepam
d) Theophylline
71. In severe trauma to treat hypervoleamia
the 1st line of management is by
a) Blood transfusion
b) Ringer’s lactate
c) 5 % dextrose
d) Normal saline
72. In neonatal resuscitation to be done is
a) Wipe with wet towel
b) Place the baby on the back
c) Suction nose then mouth
d) All of the above
73. In a 14 yr old girl with dysgerminoma
involving one ovary with occult metastasis
in the other ovary is best mangement by
a) Unilateral opherectomy with close
observation
b) Unilateral oopherectomy with
chemotherapy
c) Unilateral oopherectomy with
radiotherapy
d) Total abdominal hysterectomy and
bilateral salpingo-opherectomy
74. In a post menopausal women with
T4N0M0 carcinoma breast is to be treated
by
a) Simple mastectomy and axillary
clearing
b) Primary chemotherapy and
mastectomy with secondary
chemotherapy
c) Simple excision with axillary clearing
and tamoxifen
d) Mastectomy with axillary clearing
with chemotherapy
75. Most unlikely complication of benign
gastric ulcer is
a) Perforation and peritonitis
b) Heametemesis and melena
c) Stricture and obstruction
d) Malignancy
76. True regarding treatement of H.Pylori is
a) All dyspeptics to be treated H. Pylori
b) Dyspeptics with confirmed H. Pylori
colonization only to be treated
c) Those with recurrance and relapses
only are treated for H.Pylori
d) Patients with duodenal ulcer are to be
treated for H.pylori
77. Causative organism in chancroid is
a) Heamophilus ducrey
b) Calymatobacterium donovaniosis
c) Gonococci
d) LGV
78. Most premalignant lesion in the breast is
a) Chronic mastitis
b) Fibroadenoma
c) Acute mastitis
d) Fibrocystic adenosis
79. Diurnal variation control including release
of ACTH is under the control of which of
the following nuclei
a) Preoptic nucleus
b) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
c) Supraoptic nucleus
d) Paraventricular nuclei
80. Pyelonephritis is more common in females
because
a) Hormonal changes
b) Short urethra
c) Trauma
d) All of the above
81. When the muzzle of the gun is held close
to the skull and fired then
a) The entry wound will be smaller then
the projectile bullet
b) The exit wound is larger then the
entry wound
c) There is crepitus at the site of the
entry wound
d) The margins of the entry wound are
everted
82. Flouride inhibits which of the following in
the citric acid cycle
a) Malonate
b) Enolase
c) Cis-aconitase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
83. True regarding urine output and voiding
pressure is
a) Flow is >15 ml/min and pressure is
<60 mmHg
b) Flow is 10-15 ml/min and pressure is
<60 mm Hg
c) Flow is >15 ml/min and the pressure
is 60-80 mm Hg
d) Flow is 10-15 ml/min and the
pressure is 60-80 mmHg
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84. Emergency cholecystectomy is done in all
of the following conditions except
a) Clostridia
b) Salmonella
c) Diabetes Mellitus
d) Sepsis
85. In emergency contraceptive best is
a) Ethynyl estradiol
b) Oral contraceptives
c) Levonorgestrol
d) Progesterone
86. After how many weeks is tonsillectomy
advised after treatement of quinsy
a) 6-10 weeks
b) 2-4 weeks
c) 10-12 weeks
d) 15-20 weeks
87. The main source of blood supply to tonsil
is
a) Lingual artery
b) Maxillary artery
c) Facial artery
d) Pharyngeal artery
88. Prophylactic mass treatement is given for
all of the following except
a) Diarrhea
b) Trachoma
c) Brucella
d) Plague
89. All of the following are implicated in the
causation of hepatocellular carcinoma
except
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Alcoholic cirrhosis
90. In the treatment of cholera all of the
following are used in the treatment in the
children except
a) Ampicillin
b) Tetracycline
c) Furozolidone
d) Eryhtromycin
91. In the etiopathogenesis of diabetic foot
implicated are
a) Angiopathy
b) Neuropathy
c) Infection
d) All of the above
92. In the treatment of retinopathy by
photocoagulatuion using laser, the laser
acts onThe rods and cones
a) Inner plexiform layer
b) Pigment layer
c) Inner nuclear layer
93. In retinal detachment the layer separated
are
a) Pigment layer and ruch’s membrane
b) Inner nuclear layer and inner
plexiform layer
c) Pigment layer and rest of retinal
layers
d) Outer plexiform and the inner nuclear
layer
94. Cause of pseudocyst of pancreas includes
a) Trauma
b) Acute pancreatitis
c) Chronic pancreatic
d) All of the above
95. Water lilly sign is seen in
a) Calcified hydatid cyst of the lung
b) Ruptured hydatid cyst
c) Hydatid cyst of liver
d) Calcified hydatid cyst of liver
96. Popcorn calcification is typically seen in
a) Hamartoma
b) Malignancy
c) A-V malformation
d) Silicosis
97. In strychnine poisoning true is
a) All the muscles are involved at the
same time
b) There is rigidity in between attacks
c) Onset is insidious
d) Local muscle involvement is common
98. Spastic paraplegia is seen in all of the
following except
a) Lead poisoning
b) Guillian barre syndrome
c) Lathyrism
d) Trauma
99. Cisplatin is drug of choice in treatment of
all of the following except
a) Breast carcinoma
b) Adrenocortical malignancy
c) Esophageal carcinoma
d) Carcinoma stomach
100. In cardiac arrest the most common acid
base disorder seen is
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Respiratory acidosis
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c) Respiratory alkalosis
d) Metabolic alkalosis
101. The primary defect seen in acidosis is
a) Increase in carbon dioxide
b) Decrease in bicarbonate
c) Decrease in carbon dioxide
d) None of the above
102. In massive blood transfusion all of the
following are seen except
a) Metabolic acidosis
b) Hyperkaleamia
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Thrombocytopenia
103. Flexion is caused by all of the following
muscles except
a) Brachialis
b) Corachobrachialis
c) Pronator teres
d) Brachioradialis
104. Fall on the out stretched hand causes all of
the following except
a) Elbow dislocation
b) Fracture humerus
c) Colles fracture
d) Fracture styloid process
105. Waters view is used for
a) Maxillary sinus
b) Knee joint
c) Ankle joint
d) Pelvis
106. A patient on endotracheal tube airway is
converted to tracheostomy after 7 days.
This is done for which of the following
reasons
a) To prevent laryngeal stenosis
b) To decrease anatomical dead space
107. Takayasu’s arteritis most commonly
involves
a) Abdominal aorta
b) Subclavian artery
c) Renal artery
d) Common carotid artery
108. The patent ductus arteriosis connects aorta
and
a) Pulmonary trunk
b) Left pulmonary artery
c) Subclavian artery
d) Descending aorta
109. DES administered during pregnancy
causes
a) Virilization of head and neck
b) Virilization of lower limbs
c) Vaginal adenocarcinoma in teenage
d) Cervical stenosis
110. Treatment of anal carcinoma is
a) Radiotherapy
b) Surgery
c) Chemotherapy
d) Chemoradiation
111. Most premalignant among the following is
a) Tubular adenoma
b) Villous adenoma
c) Hamartomatous polyp
d) Hyperplastic polyps
112. Most common cause of painless
heamaturia is
a) Renal cell carcinoma
b) Cystitis
c) Renal calculi
d) Bladder polyps
113. Rattling sound in infants is seen in
a) Oropharyngeal secretions
b) Lower tract obstruction
c) Tracheal/laryngeal stenosis
d) Airway filled with fluid
114. The prevelance of stunting in preschool
children is
a) 30 %
b) 66 %
c) 72%
d) 52%
115. Doubling of HCG is
a) 12-24 hours
b) 6-12 hours
c) 24-48 hours
d) 48-72 hours
116. The community health worker detects
malnutrition by
a) Weight/height measurement
b) Mid arm circumfrence
c) Triceps fold thickness
d) All of above
117. To assess the age by x-ray all of the
following can be used except
a) Foot-in newborn
b) Knee joint- 3-9 months
c) Hand-1-13 years
d) Elbow- 12-14 years
118. Ciliospinal reflex is transmitted via which
of the following tracts
a) Tectospinal reflex
b) Cortical reflex
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c) Rubraspinal reflex
d) Reticulospinal reflex
119. Terratozospermia denotes
a) Decreased sperm count
b) Decreased viability of sperms
c) Deformed and abnormal shape of
sperms
d) Increased sperm count
120. In a year breakdown of TB cases in two
sexes is best depicted by
a) Venn diagram
b) Histogram
c) Line diagram
d) Frequency polygon
121. Test based on the same principle as the
chi-square test is
a) Wilcoxins test
b) Fishers test
c) McNemar test
d) Spear mans test
122. In which of the following studies are
control and comparison groups routinely
used
a) Clinical case trial
b) Longitudinal trials
c) Case control studies
d) Cross section study
123. A drug which has to be tested in humans
for 7 days requires it to be checked in the
animals for toxicity for a minimum period
of how many days
a) 14 days
b) 28 days
c) 90 days
d) 120 days
124. Superior rib notching is seen in
a) Aortic aneurysm
b) PDA
c) Coarctation of aorta
d) Subaortic stenosis
125. Hypercholestroleamia is seen in all of the
following except
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Nephrotic syndrome
c) LDL receptor defect
d) Obesity
126. Hyperuricemia is seen in all of the
following except
a) Eclampsia
b) Leukemia
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) CRF
127. Tram track appearance is seen in which of
the following nephropathies
a) Membranous
b) Membranoproliferative
c) Mesangioproliferative
d) Focal segmental
128. Pleural effusion by tuberculosis is
indicated by
a) INF alpha
b) INF gamma
c) IL=6
d) Lactate dehydrogenase
129. Alkaline phosphatase is increased in all of
the following except
a) Tumor lysis syndrome
b) Multiple myeloma
c) Leukemia
d) Heamolytic aneamia
130. All of the following are prognostic
indicators in acute pancreatitis except
a) Amylase>1000 units
b) LDH>400
c) AST>250
d) Hyperglyceamia>200 mg/dl
131. Signs indicating systemic failure in
pancreatitis are
a) Heart rate >130
b) Urine output <30 ml
c) PO2 <60 mm Hg
d) Calcium ions <2 mmol/l
132. Most common psychiatric abnormality in
India is
a) Hysteria
b) Depressive psychosis
c) Depressive psychosis
d) Shizophrenia
133. False virgin signs are all of the following
except
a) Cresentic fourchette
b) Cutaneous labia minora
c) Thick firm, elastic, labia major
d) All of the above
134. The most common complication of
emergency appendecectomy is
a) Wound infection
b) Cutaneous fistula
c) Adhesive intestinal obstruction
d) Sepsis
135. Phlegmasia cerulea dolens in deep vein
thrombosis denotes
a) White leg
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b) Blue leg
c) Red leg
d) Black leg
136. Iron absorption is maximum in
a) Stomach
b) Proximal small intestine
c) Ileum
d) Jejunum
137. Albumin acts as a cotransport for
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Fatty acids
d) Vitamin K
138. The intervetebral disc is affected by
a) Metastasis
b) Pott’s spine
c) Trauma
d) All of the above
139. True about hepatic portal vein is
a) It lies behind the IVC
b) It lies anterior to the neck of the
pancreas
c) It is formed by splenic vein and the
superior mesenteric vein
d) Lies in front of the gal bladder
140. Ape thumb deformity is seen in damage to
which of the following nerves
a) Radial
b) Posterior interrosieus
c) Ulnar
d) Medial
141. Bilroth I operation is treatment of choice
for
a) Zollinger Ellison syndrome
b) Doudenal ulcer
c) Carcinoma stomach
d) Benign pyloric stenosis
142. In a 60 year old man the greatest
refraction is occurring at
a) The anterior surface of cornea
b) The posterior surface of cornea
c) Lens
d) Bifocal convex lenses
143. Trichophyton affects
a) Skin only
b) Hair only
c) Skin hair and nails
d) Skin and nails only
144. The break in the corneal epithelium is best
demonstrated by staining with
a) Heamatoxylin
b) Eosin
c) Methylene blue
d) Flourescien sodium
145. In the ORS solution as per WHO
guidelines the contents are all of the
following except
a) Na+ - 90
b) K+- 20
c) Glucose- 111
d) Hco3- 10
146. All of the following exacerbate gout
except
a) Azathioprine
b) Sulphinpyrazone
c) Thiazide
d) Pyrazinamide
147. Digoxin toxicity is associated with all of
the following except
a) Cachexia
b) Yellow vision
c) Gyneacomastia
d) Hyperkaleamia
148. The most constant finding in fracture is
a) Abnormal mobility
b) Deformity
c) Localized tenderness
d) External wound
149. Pneumothorax is best demonstated by
taking X ray in
a) Full inspiration
b) Mid expiration
c) Full expiration
d) Mid inspiration
150. Archicerebellum is
a) Flocculus
b) Declive
c) Central lobule
d) Olive nucleus
151. The abductors of the vocal cords are
a) Transverse aretenoids
b) Posterior cricoaretenoids
c) Cricothyroid
d) Anterior cricoaretenoids
152. Nerve supply of the 4th arch is
a) Fascial nerve
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
c) Superior laryngeal nerve
d) Vagus nerve
153. Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all of
the following except
a) Anterior cricoaretenoids
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b) Transverse aretenoids
c) Posterior cricoaretenoids
d) Cricothyroid
154. All of the following are complications
associated with breech more commonly
except
a) Shoulder dystocia
b) Asphyxia
c) Cerebral hemorrhage
d) Cord prolapse
155. Breech is least commonly associated with
a) Post partum heamorrhage
b) Placenta previa
c) Preterm delivery
156. Most common site for the intracranial
bleeding is
a) Thalamus
b) Putamen
c) Cerebellum
d) Temperal lobe
157. All the parasites inhabit the small intestine
except
a) Ankylostoma doudenale
b) Enerobius vermicularis
c) Trichinell spiralis
d) Ascarus lumbricoides
158. The Random flap derives its blood supply
from
a) Directly from the bed of the wound
b) Subcutaneous vascular plexus
c) From the passing deeper vessels
d) From the nearby named arteries
159. All of the following are used in the
treatment of parkinsonism except
a) Pramipexole
b) Tolcapone
c) Riluzole
d) Bromocriptone
160. MAO A and B inhibitors are all of the
following except
a) Iproniazid
b) Tyramine
c) Moclobomide
d) Tranylcypromine
161. Cholestatic jaundice is caused by
a) Phenobarbitone
b) INH
c) Tetracycline
d) Methyltestosterone
162. Acetyl cysteine is used in the treatment of
a) CCl4
b) Chloroform
c) Paracetamol toxicity
d) All of the above
163. At the neuro-muscular junction in skeletal
muscle
a) The receptors are similar to those on
the smooth muscle
b) Decrease calcium concentration can
cause increased excitation of the
muscle
c) The nerve endings contain more
vescicles and mitochondria
d) High concentration of acetyl
cholinesterase at the synapse
increases the break down of
acetylcholine
164. Features suggesting antemortem bruise
include all of the following except
a) Color changes
b) Confirmed to bony prominences
c) Cellular reactions
d) Swelling
165. All of the following suggest ante mortem
findings except
a) Arterial bleeding
b) Deep stain that cannot be easily
washed
c) Wound does not gape
d) Blood clot
166. Not a classical sign described by Celsius
is
a) Rubor
b) Color
c) Tumor
d) Functio leasa
167. Most common reason for discontinuing
use of OCP’s is
a) Nuasea
b) Weight gain
c) Abnormal vaginal bleeding
d) Depression
168. Increase in preload causes contraction of
the heart muscle
a) Isometric contraction with shortening
of the muscle
b) Isotonic contraction with shortening
of the muscle
c) Isometric contraction without
shortnening of the muscle
d) Isotonic contraction without
shortening of the muscle
169. The term rodent ulcer is used for
a) Squamous cell carcinoma
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b) Basal cell carcinoma
c) Syphilitic ulcer
d) Ulcer due to burns
170. In diabetic nephropathy which of the
following changes can be seen
a) Fibrin caps
b) Capsular drops
c) Pyelonephritis
d) All of the above
171. Bone in bone appearance is classically
seen in
a) Osteopetrosis
b) Leukemia
c) Bone infarct
d) Sickle cell aneamia
172. CD 10 is a marker in
a) CLL
b) CML
c) AML
d) ALL
173. Erythropoeitin is useful in all of the
following except
a) Aplastic aneamia
b) Sickle cell aneamia
c) Chemotherapy induced aneamia
d) CRF with anemia
174. Features of hemolytic anemia are
a) Bone marrow hyperplasia
b) Increased reticulocytes
c) Splenomegaly
d) Unconjugated hyperbilurubineamia
175. All of the following features are seen in
hypothyroidism except
a) Delayed jerks
b) Mennorhagia
c) Diarrhea
d) Decreased BMR
176. Least common cause of pain abdomen in
children is
a) Lower lobe atelectasis
b) Peritonitis
c) Worm colic
d) UTI
177. All are predisposing features of
hepatocellular carcinoma except
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) Alcoholic cirrhosis
178. In blood increased rouleux formation is
seen in
a) Albumin
b) Gelatin
c) Dextran 40
d) Dexrtan 70
179. In a child immunized with BCG, can later
develop all of the following except
a) Mantoux positive
b) Miliary tuberculosis
c) Cannot protect against tuberculosis
d) Increases generalized immune
response
180. In a middle aged patient with a 6mm
cystic nodule in the thyroid should best be
managed by
a) Aspiration of nodule
b) Hemithyroidectomy
c) Nothing needs to be done
d) Lobectomy
181. One should be worried if
a) The thyroid nodule is male patient
b) There is an enlarged nodule in
adolscent
c) Progressive enlargement of nodule in
a goiter
d) All of the above
182. Calcitonin is a tumor marker in
a) Papillary thyroid carcinoma
b) Medullary thyroid carcinoma
c) Adenocarcinoma thyroid
d) Pancreatic carcinoma
183. Most important stage for transmission of
filariasis is
a) Stage of acute lymphadenitis
b) Symptomatic stage
c) Stage of chronic filariasis
d) Asymptomatic stage of
microfilaria
184. True regarding keratoconus is
a) Progressively increasing in size
b) Associated with increase in size of
globe
c) Anterior bulging of cornea
d) None of the above
185. In a patient with cirrhosis the causative
organism for spontaneous bacterial
peritonitis is
a) E. Coli
b) Staphylococci
c) Streptococcus
d) Pseudomonas
186. Coagulase positive organism is
a) Staphylococci epidermidis
b) Streptococci
c) Staphylococci aureus
d) Streptococcus pneumonia
187. Diptheria can be demonstrated most
rapidly on which of the following culture
media
a) Blood culture
b) Thayer martin media
c) Loefflers serum slope
d) MYPA media
188. To prevent reccurance in peptic ulcer
disease the best treatment is
a) Selective vagotomy
b) Highly selective vagotomy
c) Vagotomy + antrectomy
d) Truncal vagotomy and
gastrojejunostomy
189. The antibody crossing the placenta is
a) IgM
b) IgG
c) IgA
d) IgD
190. El-Tor vibrio was first found in
a) Indonasia
b) India
c) Bangladesh
d) Spain
191. BCG is a
a) Live attenuated vaccine
b) Killed vaccine
c) Diploid cell vaccine
d) None of the above
192. Correct statement regarding RNA
replication in bacteria is
a) Independent of DNA synthesis
b) Starts at a unique site
c) Independent of the requirements of
the proteins
d) All of the above
193. Congenital transmission is seen in all of
the following except
a) Cytomegalovirus
b) Toxoplasmosis
c) Herpes
d) Cryptococcus
194. Most common cause of papillary necrosis
is
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hemolytic ureamic syndrome
c) Analgesic nephropathy
d) Hypertension
195. Which of the following is a non reducing
sugar
a) Maltose
b) Galactose
c) Fructose
d) Sucrose